Acts 2:38 - Baptism Required for Salvation?

I have recently run into several discussions in which the issue of baptism being required for salvation has arose. This post will specifically deal with the misuse of Acts 2:38, but before I begin my discussion on this verse, I would like to say a few things regarding baptism for salvation in general.

First off, it should be noticed that there are only a handful of verses that even hint at baptism being required for salvation. Of those, I think Acts 2:38 is the only passage which would still give someone trouble after close examination. With this being the case, it's much better to question our understanding of this one passage than to take a single verse and run with it, overthrowing the whole doctrine of salvation in the process. There are hundreds of other verses which talk about salvation with no mention of baptism, not to mention case studies such as the thief on the cross, Acts 10:34-44, and 1 Corinthians 1:14-17. My point is that it's clear that the Bible as a whole does not teach that baptism is required for salvation, so we have good reason to question our understanding of this one verse.

Still, we must respond to this question of the meaning of Acts 2:38, not only to defend the gospel, but also to understand our Lord's words rightly. In studying this point, I have always been unsatisfied with the traditional way of explaining away this passage. It always seemed like a bit of a dodge to me. Then, while studying it out, I had a thought which I have not seen presented before. I feel my explanation is much more satisfying than "the usual" and I have shared my idea with a few other spiritually-minded men and they have agreed that it is valid, so I feel somewhat confident in posting this though I'm not 100%

Let's begin. First, realize who Peter is talking to when he is preaching. Acts 2:5 identifies his audience as Jews. At this point in time, Jews are known for keeping the law, and they pretty much have a correct understanding of God. However, they lack Christ. Jesus Christ is a stumblingblock to the Jews (1 Corinth 1:23) and their unbelief in him is truly their major sin.

So, I believe that when the people come to him and ask, "what must we do?", Peter tells them to repent and outlines for them specifically how they should repent. In other words, it is fair to say that Peter is telling them they must be baptized to be saved, not because baptism is anything, but because the public profession of faith in Jesus Christ by being baptized in his name is exactly what repentance would look like for a Jew. Compare this to Luke 3. John the baptist is preaching repentance and men come up to him and ask the very same question: "what shall we do?" John responds by outlining repentance for each individual. I think the parallels between these passages are very interesting.

In conclusion, baptism is not universally required for salvation, but repentance is. Peter was not teaching that baptism saves any more than John the baptist was teaching that being content with your wages brings salvation. Again, the issue is repentance, not a ritual. If you happen to be reading this and are trusting in a baptism or any other works for salvation, do not deceive yourself by thinking you are saved. I ask you to read Philippians 3:4-10 and ask yourself if you're willing to count all your religious acts as dung before Christ. Please do so, then turn to Jesus in true faith and he will save you.